Phil elucidated:
> Consider that both wheels are to move the same distance when our perfect
car
> encounters our perfect speed bump. If both ends of the sway bar are
> identically connected to the suspension, both end points of the sway bar
> will move exactly the same distance. When this happens, the net effect of
> our perfectly frictionless sway bar is now exactly zero.
> To accept the hypothesis put forth by a previous post that it is OK to
> adjust only one end of a sway bar, you would have to accept that the
effect
> of such a bar in a "straight-line speed bump" would continue to be zero.
> <good example snipped for brevity>
> In cornering, the total stiffness of the bar itself would be the same
> corning in either direction, but the forces actually applied at the
> suspension by the end links would be different. Therefore, the sway bar
> SYSTEM would affect the car differently in right and left turns.
I'm so confused! I've got to think a while... maybe have a drink.
----------
John Coffey
johncof@ibm.net
|